Dear students
This year Prelims Examination was of a applied nature. The paper not only required the objective understanding of a topic addressed in the paper but also of a subjective understanding indicating a comprehensive preparation of the examination being required. This means that the GS paper has to be prepared holistically on both prelims cum mains basis.
This year Prelims Examination was of a applied nature. The paper not only required the objective understanding of a topic addressed in the paper but also of a subjective understanding indicating a comprehensive preparation of the examination being required. This means that the GS paper has to be prepared holistically on both prelims cum mains basis.
The predictability of the paper depends on the disciplined handling of the quality material by integrating all the relevant sources in a drafted manner.
The below mentioned questions are both objectively and subjectively addressed in our modules and test series, which highlights not only our insight and an apt strategy but also the direction one must move to crack civil service examination with poise and confidence.
Q1 Satellites used for telecommunication relay are kept in a geostationary orbit. A satellite is said to be in such an orbit when :
1. The orbit is geosynchronous.
2. The orbit is circular
3. The orbit lies in the plane of the Earth‘s equator.
4. The orbit is at an altitude of 22.236 km.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(Test series No. 4, reference notes)
Q2 India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reason?
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30%
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3 (Module 2 Economy & Test series)
Q3 Which one of the following statements appropriately describes the ―fiscal stimulus?
(a) It is a massive investment by the Government in manufacturing sector to ensure the supply of goods to meet the demand surge caused by rapid economic growth.
(b) It is an intense affirmative action of the Government to boost economic activity in the country.
(c) It is Government‘s intensive action on financial institutions to ensure disbursement of loans to agriculture and allied sectors to promote greater food production and contain food inflation.
(d) It is an extreme affirmative action by the Government to pursue its policy of financial inclusion.
(Module 3 Economy)
Q4 The formation of ozone hold the Antarctic region has been a cause of concern. What could be the reason for the formation of this hole? (a) Presence of prominent tropospheric turbulence; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons. (b) Presence of prominent polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of chlorofluorocarbons. (c) Absence of polar front and stratospheric clouds; and inflow of methane and chlorofluorocarbons. (d) Increased temperature at polar region due to global warming.
(Test Paper 5 reference notes )
Q5 Consider the following actions which the Government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
(Economy Module 2)
Q6 Consider the following actions which the Government can take:
1. Devaluing the domestic currency.
2. Reduction in the export subsidy.
3. Adopting suitable policies which attract greater FDI and more funds from FIIs.
Which of the above action/actions can help in reducing the current account deficit?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3
(Economy Module 2)
Q7 Both Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
(a) FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital.
(b) FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors.
(c) FDI flows only into the secondary market, while FII targets primary market.
(d) FII is considered to be more stable than FDI.
(Economy Module 2)
Q8 With reference to ―Aam Admi Bima Yojana‖. Consider the following statements :
1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless house-hold.
2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years.
3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(Development Special Module 6)
Q9 In the context of global oil prices, ―Brent crude oil‖ is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply?
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulphur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(Test Paper 5/Module 5)
Q10 The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from
(a) The President of India
(b) The Parliament of India
(c) The Prime Minister of India
(d) The Union Finance Minister
(Test Paper 3 indirect reference notes)
Q11 All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the
(a) Contingency Fund of India
(b) Public Account
(c) Consolidated Fund of India
(d) Deposits and Advances Fund
(Test Paper 3 indirect reference notes)
Q12 Microfinance is the provision of financial services to people of low-income groups. This includes both the consumers and the serlf-employed. The service/services rendered under micro-finance is/are
1. Credit facilities
2. Savings facilities
3. Insurance facilities
4. Fund Transfer facilities.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(Module 1-2 Economy )
Q13 Southeast Asia has captivated the attention of global community over pace and time as a geostrategically significant region. Which among the following is the most convincing explanation for this global perspective?
(a) It was the hot theatre during the Second World War.
(b) Its location between the Asian Powers of China and India.
(c) It was the arena of superpower confrontation during the Cold War period.
(d) Its location between the Pacific and Indian oceans and its pre-eminent maritime character.
(Module 3 Strategic Affairs)
Q14 Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the ―Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act‖?
(a) Adult members of only the scheduled caste and scheduled tribe households
(b) Adult members of below poverty line (BPL) households
(c) Adult members of households of all backward communities
(d) Adult members of any household
(Module 6 Development Special)
Q15 With reference to ―Look East Policy‖ of India, consider the following statements:
1. India wants to establish itself as an important regional player in the East Asian Affairs
2. India wants to plug the vacuum created by the termination of cold War
3. India wants to restore the historical and cultural ties with its neighbours in Southeast and East Asia
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(Strategic Affairs Module 3 nd 4)
Q16 Recently, the USA decided to support India‘s membership in multi-lateral export control regimes called the ―Australia Group‖ and the ―Wassenaar Arrangemen.What is the difference between them?
1. The Australia Group is an informal arrangement which aims to allow exporting countries to minimize the risk of assisting chemical and biological weapons proliferation, whereas the Wassenaar Arrangement is a formal group under the OECD holding indentical objectives
2. The Australia group Comprises predominantly of Asian, African and North American countries, whereas the members countries of wassenaar Arrangement are predominantly from the European Union and American Continents
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(Test Paper 5)
Q17 The Red Data Books published by the International Union for Conservation of Nature and Natural Resources (IUCN) contain lists of
1. Endemic plant and animal species present in the biodiversity hotspots.
2. Threatened plant and animal species.
3. Protected sites for conservation of nature and natural resources in various countries.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3
d) 3 only
(Test Paper 3 indirect reference )
Q18 Why is the offering of ―teaser loans by commercial banks a cause of economic concern?
1. The teaser loans are considered to be an aspect of sub-prime lending and banks may be exposed to the risk of defaulters in future.
2. In India, the teaser loans are mostly given to inexperienced entrepreneurs to set up manufacturing or export units
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(Module 1 Economy)
Q19 In the context of Indian economy, consider the following statements.
1. The growth rate of GDP has steadily increased in the last five years.
2. The growth rate in per capita income has steadily increased in the last five years.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(Module 1 Economy)
Q20 Economic growth is usually coupled with
(a) Deflation
(b) Inflation
(c) Stagflation
(d) Hyperinflation
(Test Paper 1 indirect inference)
Q21 The lower Gangetic plain is characterized by humid climate with high temperature throughout the year. Which one among the following pairs of crops is most suitable for this region?
(a) Paddy and cotton
(b) Wheat and Jute
(c) Paddy and Jute
(d) Wheat and cotton
(Module-Geography Special map based notes)
Q 22 A state in India has the following characteristics:
1. Its northern part is arid and semiarid.
2. Its central part produces cotton.
3. Cultivation of cash crops is predominant over food crops.
Which one of the following states has all of the above characteristics?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Karnataka
(d) Tamil Nadu
(Module-Geography Special map based notes)
Q23 :La Nina is suspected to have caused recent floods in Australia. How is LaNina different from El Nino?
1. La Nina is characterized by unusually cold ocean temperature in equatorial Indian Ocean whereas El Nino is characterized by unusually warm ocean temperature in the equatorial Pacific Ocean.
2. El Nino has adverse effect on south-west monsoon of India, but La Nina has no effect on monsoon climate
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
.(Test Paper 5 Reference Notes)
Q24The 2004 Tsunami made people realize that mangroves can serve as a reliable safety hedge against coastal calamities. How do mangroves function as a safety hedge?
a) The mangrove swamps separate the human settlements from the sea by a wide zone in which people neither live nor venture out
b) The mangroves provide both food and medicines which people are in need of after any natural disaster
c) The mangrove trees are tall with dense canopies and serve as an excellent shelter during a cyclone or tsunami
d) The mangrove trees do not get uprooted by storms and tides because of their extensive root
( Test Paper 2 reference notes)
Q 25 The function of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is to
(a) Slow down the speed of neutrons
(b) Increase the speed of neutrons
(c) Cool down the reactor.
(d) Stop the nuclear reaction
(Test Paper 5 Questions Stated directly/Reference Notes)
For complete solutions click
http://smart-foundation.com/gs11.pdf
